In Quran 4:157 we read: "And [for] their saying, "Indeed, we [the Jews] have killed the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, the messenger of Allah ." And they did not kill him, nor did they crucify him; but [another] was made to resemble him to them." [Sahih International translation].
Is there ANY LOGICAL REASON why this deception was necessary?
Why would Jesus and Allah want someone else to undergo the intense pain of crucifixion -- Was Jesus too much of a coward?
Why does Allah further deceive by claiming that the Jews regarded Jesus as their "Messiah," and as a "Messenger of Allah?"
2.2 billion Christians alive today (and millions more throughout history) believe that Christ was crucified. Astonishingly, Muslims believe that all Christians have been deceived; Christ was not crucified! Surely, Allah is the "Best of the Deceivers."
The Ezra Deception. Why does Muhammad's god, Allah, declare "The Jews say Ezra is the son of Allah," (Quran 9:30), when the Jewish faith has NEVER asserted this?
Like Muslims, Jews believe that the god of the universe has no son: From the Jewish holy text Exodus Rabbah 29 we read: "I am the first and I am the last, and beside Me there is no God' I am the first, I have no father; I am the last, I have no brother. Beside Me there is no God; I have no son."
Muhammad himself used deception to have his enemies murdered (read hadith below). Thus we have our debate question: Is it unreasonable to suppose that Allah would never deceive?
"Narrated Jabir Abdullah: "Allah's messenger said "Who is willing to kill Ka'b bin Al-Ashraf who has hurt Allah and His apostle?" Thereupon Maslama got up saying, "O Allah's messenger! Would you like that I kill him?" The prophet said, "Yes". Maslama said, "Then allow me to say a (false) thing (i.e. to deceive Ka'b). The prophet said, "You may say it." [Sahih Bukhari, no. 5, #369]
Consider Quran 8:44: "Recall when He MADE THEM APPEAR AS FEW in your eyes when you met them in the battle just as He LESSENED YOU IN THEIR EYES so that Allah might accomplish what had been decreed." Why does Allah need to deceive?
We read in 8:44 that Allah intervened in human affairs by using deception to help the Muslims win. Why did he not just use his magical powers instead of deception to help the Muslims win?