Quran 2:178 -- A most significant verse, or a verse of no significance today?
Strikingly, there is a verse which might permit people to be killed as punishment for killings they did not commit (if the brothers of the victims do not forgive & demand financial reimbursement). In Quran 2:178 we read:
"O ye who believe! Retaliation is prescribed for you in the matter of the murdered; the freeman for the freeman, and the slave for the slave, and the female for the female. And for him who is forgiven somewhat by his (injured) brother, prosecution according to usage and payment unto him in kindness."
We observe straight away that innocence or guilt is not of consequence -- if your group killed one of our slaves or women, then Allah commands us to respond by killing one of your slaves or women (if no forgiveness can take place), even if these slaves & women themselves were not killers.
This verse may explain why if a market-place with many Shia Muslims is destroyed by a Sunni Muslim suicide bomber, then we may read in the newspapers shortly later of a Sunni town being assaulted by Shia militia. In addition, this verse may provide to Al Qaeda a justification for flying planes into buildings in New York killing many innocent people, if Al Qaeda itself is convinced that the U.S. is responsible for deaths in Palestine.
But has this verse been abrogated by Quran 5:32?
" For that cause We decreed for the Children of Israel that whosoever killeth a human being for other than manslaughter or corruption in the earth, it shall be as if he had killed all mankind, and whoso saveth the life of one, it shall be as if he had saved the life of all mankind." (Quran 5:32).
Surely, this latter verse condemns the murder of innocent people, and thus might abrogate Quran 2:178. But there is another interpretation that there is no abrogation, arguing that Quran 5:32 merely mentions a decree for "the Children of Israel," and was not meant to apply to future generations.
Most Muslims today seem to believe that killing any innocent people is wrong, but notable numbers of Muslims do blow themselves up in order kill those who have done them no harm.
Humanity would benefit if a definite determination could be made as to whether Quran 2:178 has been abrogated by Quran 5:32. But in any case, are there any logical reasons why a righteous god of the universe would at least initially allow innocent people to be killed in retaliation?
Strikingly, there is a verse which might permit people to be killed as punishment for killings they did not commit (if the brothers of the victims do not forgive & demand financial reimbursement). In Quran 2:178 we read:
"O ye who believe! Retaliation is prescribed for you in the matter of the murdered; the freeman for the freeman, and the slave for the slave, and the female for the female. And for him who is forgiven somewhat by his (injured) brother, prosecution according to usage and payment unto him in kindness."
We observe straight away that innocence or guilt is not of consequence -- if your group killed one of our slaves or women, then Allah commands us to respond by killing one of your slaves or women (if no forgiveness can take place), even if these slaves & women themselves were not killers.
This verse may explain why if a market-place with many Shia Muslims is destroyed by a Sunni Muslim suicide bomber, then we may read in the newspapers shortly later of a Sunni town being assaulted by Shia militia. In addition, this verse may provide to Al Qaeda a justification for flying planes into buildings in New York killing many innocent people, if Al Qaeda itself is convinced that the U.S. is responsible for deaths in Palestine.
But has this verse been abrogated by Quran 5:32?
" For that cause We decreed for the Children of Israel that whosoever killeth a human being for other than manslaughter or corruption in the earth, it shall be as if he had killed all mankind, and whoso saveth the life of one, it shall be as if he had saved the life of all mankind." (Quran 5:32).
Surely, this latter verse condemns the murder of innocent people, and thus might abrogate Quran 2:178. But there is another interpretation that there is no abrogation, arguing that Quran 5:32 merely mentions a decree for "the Children of Israel," and was not meant to apply to future generations.
Most Muslims today seem to believe that killing any innocent people is wrong, but notable numbers of Muslims do blow themselves up in order kill those who have done them no harm.
Humanity would benefit if a definite determination could be made as to whether Quran 2:178 has been abrogated by Quran 5:32. But in any case, are there any logical reasons why a righteous god of the universe would at least initially allow innocent people to be killed in retaliation?